The GRE General Test, created by ETS, is the one admissions test that is accepted by top-ranked business and graduate school programs all over the world. Thousands of graduate and professional schools accept GRE scores to help them make admissions, scholarship and fellowship decisions. The GRE General Test closely reflects the kind of thinking one will do in today’s demanding graduate school programs, including business and law. It measures your verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical thinking and analytical writing skills — skills that have been developed over a long period of time and aren’t related to a specific field of study but are important for all. It features a unique test-taker-friendly design that allows the test takers to skip questions and go back and change answers within a section. Plus, with the ScoreSelect option, if one decides to retake the test to try to beat your score, you only have to send your best score to schools. In this article we will be discussing the structure and types of GRE verbal section questions.
To get a perfect score, one needs to decide early in properly planning when to take the exam, a tentative date should be in mind so that the target date helps the students to chase it and a holistic preparation that goes behind it. Here comes the question of how to start GRE preparation, will it be through GRE online classes, offline classes even one can think to opt for the hybrid mode.
In the recent past, the afflictions Covid-19 imposed on us changed our perspectives on many aspects especially on Education. GRE online prep has gained immense popularity and students globally have taken the advantage of exclusively online mode to take GRE classes.
Detailed GRE Test Structure:
Sectional Break-up
Online Computer delivered | No. of sections | Total duration | No. of questions & the Split | |||
Verbal Reasoning | 2 | 41 minutes Section 1: 18 min. Section 2: 23 min. |
27 Section 1: 12 questions Section 2: 15 questions |
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Quantitative Reasoning | 2 | 47 minutes Section 1: 21 min. Section 2: 26 min. |
27 Section 1: 12 questions. Section 2: 15 questions. |
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Analytical Writing | 1 | 30 minutes | 1(Issue Essay) | |||
Total | 5 | 1 hours 58 Minutes | 55 |
What’s on the GRE Verbal Section: An Overview of the Verbal Section of the GRE
How Many Questions Are on the Verbal GRE Section?
The GRE verbal section is divided into two parts, with a total of 27 questions spread over 41 minutes.
What Are the GRE Types of Verbal Questions?
The Verbal questions that appear on the GRE are of the following four main types, each contributing to a significant portion of the verbal reasoning section.
- Text Completion
- Sentence Equivalence
- Reading Comprehension
- Critical Reasoning
Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence questions each account for about a quarter of the verbal section, with approximately 7 questions of each type. They are often called “GRE vocabulary questions” because both of these types of GRE Verbal questions involve completing sentences by using words to fill blanks. Thus, they require strong vocabulary knowledge but along with that logical understanding of the sentences is also at play.
There are three main types of Text Completion questions: one-blank, two-blank and three-blank. One-blank Text Completion questions are made up of a single sentence with one blank and five answers choices. We answer these questions by selecting only one answer choice to fill the one blank. A Two blank TC question is followed by six options- and three-blank Text Completion question is made up of one or more sentences followed by nine options. For each of the blanks, there are three answer choices, one of which is correct.
Sentence Equivalence is similar to Text Completion in that it involves choosing answers that logically fill blanks in sentences. However, Sentence Equivalence (SE) has an added aspect. Each Sentence Equivalence question has only one sentence with one blank to fill, but there are two correct answers.The two correct answers must have the following characteristics. The first is that both correct answers must logically fill the blank. The second is that the two completed sentences must communicate essentially the same meaning
KEY FACT: Roughly a quarter of the 27 Verbal questions on the GRE are Text Completion questions and another quarter is devoted to SE questions, which we answer by finding the choice that most logically fills each blank.
Of the 27 Verbal questions that appear on the GRE, roughly half are Reading Comprehension (RC) questions. Of those 12-14 questions, around 10-12 are what we call standard Reading Comprehension questions, and 1 or 2 are Critical Reasoning questions. Reading Comprehension questions involve reading passages, and then answering questions based on the passages. Reading Comprehension includes three different types of questions.
- Multiple-Choice Questions with 5 options and 1 correct answer needs to be selected.
- Select One or More Answers from 3 options
- Select the sentence in the Passage question
KEY FACT: RC constitutes approximately half of the Verbal Reasoning section.
Critical Reasoning questions (CR) also known as Paragraph argument questions are a subtype of reading comprehension and are highlighted for their difficulty and distinct approach. We can master GRE CR most efficiently and effectively by focusing on one type of CR question at a time. There are eight different types of CR questions that can appear on the GRE, and each works in its own way. So, focusing on one type of question at a time, and learning how to answer questions of that type and then practicing, works best. So, basically all GRE Verbal questions, whether they are Reading Comprehension, Text Completion, or one of the other types, challenge us to reason logically, pay attention to detail, and execute well.
The focus on GRE verbal should be streamlined from the very beginning as it requires a very methodical means for gaining a firm grip on Vocabulary, thinking style, logical aptitude etc. Searching for the right GRE training course should remain the utmost priority for the students.
Smart Tips for the GRE Test in General
- Familiarize yourself with the test content by indulging yourself in taking sectionals and mocks and any GRE training course would include that.
- Use the mark and review feature
- Answer every question and don’t leave any question unanswered.
- Pay attention to time and this is taught and imparted rigorously to the aspirants either inside the GRE classes be it GRE online prep or GRE classroom training.
- Time management skills required to a great extent
- The familiarity with the testing experience will make you feel more confident to face the exam
- Review what you write for errors.
GRE SCORING System:
Total score – 340
Sectional split:
130-170 (Verbal)
130-170 (Quants)
AWA is measured out of 6 and this score doesn’t impact the GRE overall score which is out of 340.
GRE is a sectional adaptive test
The GRE Verbal Reasoning and Quantitative Reasoning sections are section-level adaptive. The difficulty level of the second section of each of the measures depends on your overall performance on the first section.
For example, if one does very well on the first Quantitative Reasoning section, the second section of Quantitative Reasoning will be at a higher level of difficulty. The scoring for the Verbal Reasoning and Quantitative Reasoning measures takes into consideration the total number of questions answered correctly across the two sections, as well as the difficulty level of the sections.
Test design features
The advanced adaptive design of the GRE General Test allows the test takers to move forward and backward throughout an entire section. Specific features include:
- preview and review capabilities within a section
- “Mark” and “Review” features to tag questions, so you can skip them and return later if you have time remaining in the section
- the ability to change/edit answers within a section
- an on-screen calculator for the Quantitative Reasoning section
- The Verbal Reasoning section and the Quants Reasoning section are scored on a scale of 130 to 170, in one-point increments.
Looking for help with your GRE preparation?
GRE Sample Questions
A quick glance at some sample GRE questions along with the explanations for each type of verbal reasoning questions.
Example: A One-Blank Text Completion Question
This composer has never courted popularity: her rugged modernism seems to defy rather than to _______ the audience.
- ignore
- discount
- woo
- teach
- cow
Explanation
Correct option- C
Contextual Trigger- courted, defy
Contrast trigger- rather
The part which follows the colon elaborates on the first part. The meaning of never courted is that the composer has never chased/run after popularity. The second part explains further stating that her sturdy/robust personality seemed to defy (challenge) the audience rather than to chase after them.
Example: A Two-Blank Text Completion Question
Yellow fever, the disease that killed 4,000
Philadelphians in 1793, and so (i)________Memphis,
Tennessee, that the city lost its charter, has reappeared
after nearly two decades in (ii)________in the
Western Hemisphere.Blank (i) | Blank (ii) |
(A) terrorized | (D) quarantine |
(B) disabled | (E) secret |
(C) decimated | (F) abeyance |
Explanation
Correct Options: CF
Contextual Triggers: killed, reappeared, decades
Similarity Trigger- and
In this sentence, the key word is “killed” and the there is a similarity connector “and” which means for the 1st blank we need a word close to kill as the city lost its charter so we can choose ‘decimated’ which means great destruction. The meaning of the second part of the sentence is that after a gap of 2 decades the disease has reappeared. A disease cannot be quarantined neither can it maintain secrecy. So after a gap (hiatus) of 2 decades, it (the disease) has reappeared.
Example: A Three-Blank Text Completion Question
Throughout her writing, Ms. Angelou explored the concepts of personal identity and (i)_________ through the (ii)_________ lens of race, gender, community and the collective past. As a whole, her work offered a hard-headed examination of the ways in which the socially (iii)_________ forces of racism and sexism were countered at the level of the individual.
a. resilience | d. inimitable | g. illicit |
b. dubiety | e. spurious | h. deprecating |
c. pedantry | f. multi-faceted | i. bleak |
Explanation
Correct Options- AFH
Similarity Trigger – and
Contextual Trigger– The sentence is full of contextual triggers (personal identity, lens of community and collective past, forces of racism and sexism)
There are two things that describe the common threads running through Ms. Angelou’s work: the exploration of personal identity and (first blank) and the countering of racism and sexism. This helps us pick “resilience” (toughness) for the first blank as it would help someone counter the forces of racism and sexism. “Dubiety” (uncertainty) and “pedantry” (obsession with minor details) won’t be able to help someone in this kind of situation. She examines the “concepts” from so many perspectives, and the second blank should reflect that. “Multifaceted” accomplishes this. “Inimitable” means “unique”, which is the opposite of what we need. “Spurious” means “fake” and does not fit the meaning we need. “Deprecating” (showing that something is of little value) indicates something that would need to be encountered. “Bleak” (without hope) and “illicit” (illegal) don’t provide us anything (in a social context) that would need to be countered.
Example: A Sentence Equivalence Question
-
Residents of the isolated island were forced to master the art of navigation, becoming the ocean’s most __________________ sailors.
a) adept
b) convivial
c) gregarious
d) despicable
e) congenial
f) skilful
Correct answer pair – Adept and Skilful (AF)
The other synonymous pairs are CE/BC/BE
The correct answer pair is AF
Contextual Trigger – isolated. Island, sailors
Similarity trigger – comma
The residents of this island have mastered the art of navigating the ocean, essentially becoming expert sailors. Hence the required words are adept and skillful. Nothing suggests they are despicable (hateful) or convivial, congenial and gregarious (very friendly) which are irrelevant here.
Adept – Skillful
Convivial – Friendly
Gregarious – Friendly
Despicable –- Hate
Congenial – Friendly
Skilful – Skillful
Example: One RC passage followed by 3 Questions
Theorists are divided concerning the origin of the
Moon. Some hypothesize that the Moon was formed
in the same way as were the planets in the inner solar
system (Mercury, Venus, Mars, and Earth)—from
planet-forming materials in the presolar nebula. But,
unlike the cores of the inner planets, the Moon’s core
contains little or no iron, while the typical planet-
forming materials were quite rich in iron. Other theorists
propose that the Moon was ripped out of the
Earth’s rocky mantle by the Earth’s collision with another
large celestial body after much of the Earth’s iron fell to
its core. One problem with the collision hypothesis is the
question of how a satellite formed in this way could have
settled into the nearly circular orbit that the Moon has
today. Fortunately, the collision hypothesis is testable.
If it is true, the mantle rocks of the Moon and the Earth
should be the same geochemically.1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
- present two hypotheses concerning the origin of the Moon
- discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the collision hypothesis concerning the origin of the Moon
- propose that hypotheses concerning the Moon’s origin be tested
- argue that the Moon could not have been formed out of the typical planet-forming materials of the presolar nebula
- describe one reason why the Moon’s geochemical makeup should resemble that of the Earth
Correct option: A
Explanation: This is a primary purpose question in which the correct answer choice will cover the majority of the passage. The tone of the passage determines the tone of the right answer choice. In this passage, the main idea is on the difference of opinion about the origin of the moon concerning two theories. The tone is neutral and the passage is open ended.
Option B (Incorrect because it talks only about the 2nd theory)
Option C (Incorrect because only one theory was tested not both the theories)
Option D (Incorrect because it talks about the 1st theory only)
Option E (Incorrect because this point is too insignificant to add any value to the main idea of the passage)
Hence, the correct answer choice is A
Consider each choice separately and select all that apply.
-
According to the passage, Mars and the Earth are similar in which of the following ways?
(a) Their satellites were formed by collisions with other celestial bodies.
(b) Their cores contain iron.
(C) They were formed from the pre-solar nebula.
The correct options are BC
It’s a location based question which just concerns the first theory. So, any option falling in the wrong location or options just talking about second theory will be eliminated. Hence the correct choices would be B & C. Both have been discussed in the first theory.
-
Select the sentence in the passage, in which, the author states a conundrum in the collision hypothesis.
The right sentence that needs to be clicked is “One problem with the collision hypothesis is the question of how a satellite formed in this way could have settled into the nearly circular orbit that the Moon has today”.
The clue is the word “conundrum”- it means problem/enigma/riddle/mystery. The word appears in the collision hypothesis.
Example: A Critical Reasoning Question One type (STRENGTHEN)
Infection is the biggest threat to the life of a burn patient. The skin, the body’s natural barrier against bacteria, is damaged or gone in the burned areas. The bacteria that are a threat are unpredictable in both variety and number. Moreover, those found affecting any one patient may change completely from one day to the next. The standard treatment, therefore, is the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Considering only the information given about burn patients in the passage above, which of the following is most likely to enhance the effectiveness of the standard treatment of a burn patient?
A. Keeping the patient in an air-conditioned room until recovery is assured.
B. Keeping the areas affected by burns as dry as possible.
C. Continuously monitoring the patient’s vital signs with electronic equipment.
D. Feeding the patient a diet extra rich in calories
E. Keeping the patient in a maximally sterile environment
EXPLANATION:
The passage presents a conclusion that the standard treatment to include antibiotics in order to prevent a burn patient from infection is effective.
Answer is E because it strengthens the conclusion as a ‘sterile environment’ would require the use of disinfectants and antibiotics making the standard treatment work.
A is wrong because ‘air conditioned room’ is irrelevant to the argument and will not help the burn.
B is wrong because ‘dry areas’ are irrelevant to the argument and will not help the burn.
C is wrong because ‘continuous monitoring’ is a constant, irrespective of the standard treatment.
D is wrong because ‘a calorie-rich diet’ is irrelevant to the argument and will not help the burn.
FINESSE AND FOCUS: THE 2 KEYS FOR YOUR SUCCESS
Effective GRE preparation involves consistent practice simultaneously along with the GRE classes you are attending, a solid understanding of the test format, and strategic time management that can be improved with continuous self-assessment. Preparing for the GRE in advance, particularly the GRE verbal for students coming from hard-core science/engineering backgrounds not only improves performance but also boosts confidence on test day for the test taker. A strong GRE score can significantly enhance an applicant’s chances of gaining admission to competitive graduate programs, but it’s important to remember that it is just one component of the admissions process. Thorough preparation and a focused approach can help ensure that the GRE becomes a positive reflection of a candidate’s academic abilities and potential.
FAQs
If you want to practice more such GRE questions, then there is a GRE sample test that you can give.
Students often find learning GRE vocabulary a tedious task, however it is quite important and is much needed for a good GRE score. There are GRE- centric words that are specifically asked in the exam and that is all that you have to learn in your GRE training course. If you have learned those then you have learned almost 90% of the words.